Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on skin cancer.
A 45-year-old male presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that has been slowly enlarging over the past six months. He reports no pain, itching, or bleeding. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the appearance of the lesion. Given the clinical presentation and morphology, what is the most appropriate initial step in management?
A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that he first noticed about 6 months ago. It has gradually increased in size but is not painful or itchy. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the lesion. Based on the appearance of this lesion, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that has been slowly enlarging over the past 4 months. He reports no associated pain, itching, or bleeding. He is otherwise well, with no significant past medical history. On examination, vital signs are within normal limits. The lesion is as shown in the image. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion, what is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that he first noticed about 6 months ago. It has slowly increased in size but is not painful or itchy. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the appearance of the lesion. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate initial management step?